Why did the Lord tell Moses"Ex 6:3 I appeared unto Abraham,unto Isaac, and Jacob

[shepherdsword]

Why did the Lord tell Moses:

Ex 6:3 I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name (YHVH) was I not known to them

When back in Genesis he said Issac did this:

Ge 26:25 And he builded an altar there, and called upon the name of the (YHVH) and pitched his tent there: and there Isaac's servants digged a well.

Does anyone know why Issac called on a name he was not supposed to know?

[Athanasius]

I take to the P / non-P documentary view. Probably you don't want to do that depending on how deep into inerrency you are.

[shepherdsword]

I take to the P / non-P documentary view. Probably you don't want to do that depending on how deep into inerrency you are.

Can you elaborate a bit more on the  P / non-P documentary view? I have never heard of it

[Fenris]

Medieval Jewish commentator Rashi explains it thusly:

It doesn't say that "my name was not made known to them" but that "I did not become known to them". Which is to say, although they knew that name, they did not know the attribute of fulfilling my promises that the name means, because promises were made to them that were not fulfilled in their lifetime.

[Athanasius]

I take to the P / non-P documentary view. Probably you don't want to do that depending on how deep into inerrency you are.

Can you elaborate a bit more on the  P / non-P documentary view? I have never heard of it

Documentary hypothesis. Different writers / editors from different traditions weaving together texts from different sources.

I like Fenris' view second best. That'd be the one to go for with inerrancy in mind.