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Author Topic: Differences in Bibles  (Read 4803 times)

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Fenris

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #15 on: February 07, 2023, 04:22:58 PM »
If you find a product that is a cheap knock-off of the original, and its quality is very much lacking - using cheaper materials and shoddy craftsmanship, etc.
The only solution is for you to learn Hebrew. And Ancient Greek.

Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #16 on: February 07, 2023, 04:36:14 PM »
If you find a product that is a cheap knock-off of the original, and its quality is very much lacking - using cheaper materials and shoddy craftsmanship, etc.
The only solution is for you to learn Hebrew. And Ancient Greek.
Apparently not as I've been studying both for years.

Maybe you're just .... wrong?  :)

Fenris

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #17 on: February 07, 2023, 04:48:21 PM »
Maybe you're just .... wrong?  :)
Maybe you're just... rude?

Your so called knowledge of Hebrew isn't stopping you from using problematic translations.

Athanasius

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #18 on: February 07, 2023, 04:51:41 PM »
Yeah, imma reply and tell you that I have 0 patience for "today's counterfeits" when it comes to biblical translation.
The Bible is best read in it's original Klingon.

We all know that there are older Vulcan textual attestations. Jaj yIQoy!
Life is not a problem to be solved, but a reality to be experienced.

Athanasius

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #19 on: February 07, 2023, 04:57:21 PM »
Sure. The first one that comes to mind is Proverbs 18:1. Read the KJV version of it and compare that to each and every more modern translation. It is, without debate, twisted and perverted beyond comprehension from the original meaning of the text.

Can you expand on why you think modern translations of Psalm 18:1 are "twisted and perverted beyond comprehension"? It would also help if you could indicate one or two 'modern' translations that you have in mind.

intermeddleth is a good word though. I should use that one more.

Life is not a problem to be solved, but a reality to be experienced.

Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #20 on: February 07, 2023, 05:12:18 PM »
Sure. The first one that comes to mind is Proverbs 18:1. Read the KJV version of it and compare that to each and every more modern translation. It is, without debate, twisted and perverted beyond comprehension from the original meaning of the text.

Can you expand on why you think modern translations of Psalm 18:1 are "twisted and perverted beyond comprehension"? It would also help if you could indicate one or two 'modern' translations that you have in mind.

intermeddleth is a good word though. I should use that one more.
There's no need to specify. They all change that verse.

The verse states that it is good for a man to separate himself to seek wisdom.

All modern versions say many other things that don't even come close to that sentiment, and many say exactly the opposite.

That's not something that happens by mistake.

The Bible says many places that Christians should separate from the masses and from churches that teach heresy, etc.

Athanasius

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #21 on: February 07, 2023, 05:27:17 PM »
The verse states that it is good for a man to separate himself to seek wisdom.

That's not what the verse states. It states that a man who isolates himself seeks his own desire and rages against wise judgement (counsel is a nicer word in context). Even the KJV says that, hence, intermeddleth:

Quote from: 1611
Through desire a man hauing separated himselfe, seeketh and intermedleth with all wisedome.

Even in the Hebrew, it says that.

It's a caution against the very thing you think it teaches.
Life is not a problem to be solved, but a reality to be experienced.

Fenris

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #22 on: February 07, 2023, 05:36:11 PM »
The verse states that it is good for a man to separate himself to seek wisdom.
Um, I'm reading the Hebrew, and I like the modern translations of this verse.

The Berean is perfect: "He who isolates himself pursues selfish desires; he rebels against all sound judgment"


Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #23 on: February 07, 2023, 06:12:35 PM »
That's not what the verse states. It states that a man who isolates himself seeks his own desire and rages against wise judgement (counsel is a nicer word in context). Even the KJV says that, hence, intermeddleth:
Nope, that's not what the verse says in the KJV, and it's not even what your translation below says.
Quote from: 1611
Through desire a man hauing separated himselfe, seeketh and intermedleth with all wisedome.
We can approach this with some very simple English Class techniques and prove that you are wrong.

Take the "and intermeddleth with" out of the sentence and it means exactly the same.

What do we get?

Through desire, a man having separated himself, seeks wisdom.

Now, if you wanted to make the case that it is a warning against separating oneself, you would be required to produce Scripture from elsewhere that supports that sentiment, as the Bible has continuity of doctrine throughout.

On the contrary, not only is there no Scripture that supports that concept, but there is plenty that supports the opposite.

Topic thoroughly addressed and dismissed.

Fenris

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #24 on: February 07, 2023, 06:38:08 PM »


Through desire, a man having separated himself, seeks wisdom.

This doesn't fit the context of the chapter.

The next verse begins "A fool does not delight in understanding"

And the next "When a wicked man comes"

And the word "תַאֲוָה" "desire" or "lust" usually denotes something bad.

And you're reading the words in the verse order as though its written in English, which it is not.

Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #25 on: February 07, 2023, 06:46:38 PM »


Through desire, a man having separated himself, seeks wisdom.

This doesn't fit the context of the chapter.

The next verse begins "A fool does not delight in understanding"

And the next "When a wicked man comes"

And the word "תַאֲוָה" "desire" or "lust" usually denotes something bad.

And you're reading the words in the verse order as though its written in English, which it is not.
Not sure exactly where you're from, but ... it follows ... perfectly.

A fool doesn't waste his time separating himself from vain distractions to seek wisdom. A fool embraces, and submerges himself in, the world of vain distractions.

How tall are you?

Are you tall enough to ride the big rides?

Fenris

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #26 on: February 07, 2023, 07:36:59 PM »
Not sure exactly where you're from, but ... it follows ... perfectly.

A fool doesn't waste his time separating himself from vain distractions to seek wisdom. A fool embraces, and submerges himself in, the world of vain distractions.
The first three verses as a set of bad traits, like following desire and lust.
Quote
How tall are you?

Are you tall enough to ride the big rides?
Ah. More Christ like behavior.

A soft word turns away wrath, but a harsh word stirs up anger

Proverbs 15

Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #27 on: February 07, 2023, 09:02:38 PM »
Quote
How tall are you?

Are you tall enough to ride the big rides?
Ah. More Christ like behavior.

A soft word turns away wrath, but a harsh word stirs up anger

Proverbs 15
Eh, ... a soft elbow to the ribs stirs up humor.

These are clearly harmless rebukes.

Be a sport.

Athanasius

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #28 on: February 07, 2023, 10:38:34 PM »
Nope, that's not what the verse says in the KJV, and it's not even what your translation below says.
Quote from: 1611
Through desire a man hauing separated himselfe, seeketh and intermedleth with all wisedome.
We can approach this with some very simple English Class techniques and prove that you are wrong.

Take the "and intermeddleth with" out of the sentence and it means exactly the same.

What do we get?

Through desire, a man having separated himself, seeks wisdom.

This is the exegetical practice known as "ignoring words".

We can't ignore words, and if the intermeddleth is tripping you up, we could just read straight from the Hebrew instead. You could at best argue that it's not immediately clear whether Proverbs 18:1 is praise or condemnation, but (1) further examination makes that clearer, (2) this fits in best with the whole of Proverbs 18, and (3) it certainly doesn't give anyone warrant to accuse modern translations of twisting and corrupting the text.

Now, if you wanted to make the case that it is a warning against separating oneself, you would be required to produce Scripture from elsewhere that supports that sentiment, as the Bible has continuity of doctrine throughout.

What manner of confused exegesis is this? This is a warning against the wrong kind of setting oneself apart.

Topic thoroughly addressed and dismissed.

You're not Judge Judy. You need to do more study on that word translated as intermeddleth, apparently.

Life is not a problem to be solved, but a reality to be experienced.

Titus

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Re: Differences in Bibles
« Reply #29 on: February 08, 2023, 09:16:46 AM »
Nope, that's not what the verse says in the KJV, and it's not even what your translation below says.
Quote from: 1611
Through desire a man hauing separated himselfe, seeketh and intermedleth with all wisedome.
We can approach this with some very simple English Class techniques and prove that you are wrong.

Take the "and intermeddleth with" out of the sentence and it means exactly the same.

What do we get?

Through desire, a man having separated himself, seeks wisdom.

This is the exegetical practice known as "ignoring words".

We can't ignore words, and if the intermeddleth is tripping you up, we could just read straight from the Hebrew instead. You could at best argue that it's not immediately clear whether Proverbs 18:1 is praise or condemnation, but (1) further examination makes that clearer, (2) this fits in best with the whole of Proverbs 18, and (3) it certainly doesn't give anyone warrant to accuse modern translations of twisting and corrupting the text.

Now, if you wanted to make the case that it is a warning against separating oneself, you would be required to produce Scripture from elsewhere that supports that sentiment, as the Bible has continuity of doctrine throughout.

What manner of confused exegesis is this? This is a warning against the wrong kind of setting oneself apart.

Topic thoroughly addressed and dismissed.

You're not Judge Judy. You need to do more study on that word translated as intermeddleth, apparently.
No need to specify any response to this post.

It is False throughout.

 

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