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I mean really, there's so much crazy false speculation out there that leaves the actual written Bible Scriptures about the identity of the coming false one at the end of this world, that it is impossible for the Biblically illiterate to know what's really going on. And one should not be surprised that Biblically illiterate includes many pastors over many churches today. I know, because I've gotten emails from them when I covered this subject on a old website I had years ago.

Get Up And Walk Away Situations:
1. anytime one claims there is no singular Antichrist
2. anytime one claims the coming Antichrist is already here, or already happened.
3. anytime one claims there exists many antichrists only
4. anytime one claims a pope is the Antichrist
5. anytime one claims a city, group, or nation is the Antichrist
6. anytime one claims the the image of 'man' always means one who is flesh-born
7. anytime one claims the Antichrist will arise from a Christian nation, like the USA or the EU.
8. anytime one claims the 666 number applies to Rome and/or a pope.

I could probably think of more 'excuses' like the above that many of the seminaries and fleshy thinkers come up with to try and pin the Antichrist label on, simply because they leave Bible Scripture with not realizing how wrong they are. All the above ideas are design to get you off track of the actual Bible Scripture meanings about the coming Antichrist at the end of this world.


1. In 1 John 2:18, that verse contains 2 objects involving the idea of Antichrist. The first phrase John mentioned was how the brethren there had already heard that "antichrist" shall come. That is about a SINGULAR Antichrist figure. Then John said that there were "many antichrists" already at work, and that 2nd phrase is about the idea of... yeah, that's right MANY antichrists, plural. Now we cannot simply move that latter "many antichrists" object and replace the singular "antichrist" with it that John mentioned in his 1st phrase, yet that is what some church systems and their deceived, or play-along pastors do, just to keep their jobs.

That Biblical Truth is confused by those who fail to study all their Bible. Early on in the history of the children of Israel, pagans crept in among the children of Israel, especially among the tribe of Judah (Jews). Judges 2 & 3, Joshua 9, 1 Kings 9, Ezra 2, Ezra 9, etc., show a flowing history of how Israel failed to destroy the specific nations of Canaan which God had commanded destroyed, and instead Israel allowed those leftover Canaanites to dwell among them. The Kenites represent one group of Canaanite peoples and 1 Chronicles 2:55 reveals those Kenites became the scribes of Israel in charge of keeping the letters of God's written Word. These scribes would side with those Pharisees who wanted Jesus killed, and no wonder, they were Canaanites that had crept into Moses' seat of the law. Thus the "many antichrists", and the "tares" in Lord Jesus' Matthew 13 parable, and Apostle Paul's "mystery of iniquity" (see Jude 4).

That mystery is one of the major themes of Old Testament history. God simply did not flat out tell you those 'crept in unawares' that were ordained to the condemnation of working against The Father and His Son, would be one of the major problems throughout Israel's history, and throughout world history. Just as God had hardened Pharaoh's heart in the days of Moses, likewise those 'crept in unawares' are here to work the negative side of God's Plan of Salvation through His Son Jesus Christ. This matter is a bitter pill most do not want to take, yet it is the bitter in the belly part that Apostle John felt when he was told to 'take' the Book and eat it. Christ's disciples are to understand both the sweet part and the bitter part. That is one of the ways The Holy Spirit keeps us from being deceived. Like Apostle Paul said, "Lest Satan should get an advantage of us: for we are not ignorant of his devices." (2 Cor.2:11)

Summary: God's Word reveals the existence of both... a singular Antichrist figure, and plural many antichrist workers. The "many antichrists", or "mystery of iniquity", began long, long ago, back in Old Testament history. One could even include Cain in that "many antichrists" group, since Cain killing his brother Abel would work for Satan's plan to destroy the bloodline that Christ Jesus would be born through. Satan made many later attempts to destroy the lineage of the "woman" of Genesis 3, even down to the time of Baby Jesus when king Herod issued a decree to murder all the firstborn in hopes of including Jesus.

For the time being, think about those items in that above list, how they are designed to deceive you away from Bible Scripture as written about the real... Antichrist that is coming at the end of this world.

For those interested concerning the KJV mistranslation of "false Christs" in Matthew 24:24, Dr. James Strong defined it as a SINGULAR FALSE MESSIAH. There is NO mistaking his definition...


NT:5580
pseudochristos (psyoo-dokh'-ris-tos); from NT:5571 and NT:5547; a spurious Messiah:

KJV - false Christ.
(Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright © 1994, 2003, 2006, 2010 Biblesoft, Inc. and International Bible Translators, Inc.)


So one claiming I misunderstand Dr. James Strong needs reading glasses, for Dr. Strong defined it to mean "a spurious Messiah", and that means SINGULAR TENSE, not plural.



Thayers Greek dictionary also has it to mean 'a' singular false Messiah.

NT:5580 pseudochristos, pseudochristou, ho

a false Christ (or Messiah) (one who falsely lays claim to the name and office of the Messiah): Matt 24:24
(from Thayer's Greek Lexicon, Electronic Database. Copyright © 2000, 2003, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)

In modern Interlinear Greek versions and in many Greek NT manuscripts it may very well be rendered as pseudochristoi (plural).

But Strong's has the Greek as pseudochristos, likewise Thayer's does also.

This suggests that not all New Testament Greek manuscripts have pseudechristoi.

Also, the CONTEXT of the Matthew 24:23 and Matthew 24:26 verses are SINGULAR TENSE. Lord Jesus was not talking about the idea of the "many antichrists", but the idea of the Antichrist, singular.

Furthermore, the SINGULAR tense of Apostle Paul's and Apostle John's warnings about that coming false Messiah per 2 Thessalonians 2 and Revelation 13:11 forward, also aligns with the singular tense idea Jesus spoke with the Matthew 24:23 and Matthew 24:26 verses.

Thus solely relying upon the Greek word pseudechristoi being plural while disregarding all the other Biblical evidence is simply the method of have blinders on.

If you aren’t going to be friends with Fennicus you can’t be friends with me either.  Fendrick is my JooHomey fo’ shizzle.  And he has a space laser.  Beware the space laser, nu?

Seriously Wavy Davy.   Start with the silliness and you’ll find the door.    We don’t call people names, smoke or chew or go with girls who do.

And passive aggressive “I CANT SEE YOU BECAUSE IM IGNORING YOU” works with a 3 year old but around here, meh, not so much.

When you try to debate (silly abbot, kicks are for trids ), with a conservative devout child of Abraham, you should not be surprised to get push back to your HalLindseyJohnHagee hyper dispensational interpretation of the Torah, the Prophets, and the Writings or Matthew 24

Fenris be ahite…. I’m jiggy wid it.

Meshugenah shalom and far out.

Thanks for saving me the time. I'll add you to my IGNORE LIST also.

First you say it's the same exact wording, then you say it's different words but it means the same thing, when it clearly doesn't.

No, I never said it was the same exact wording. That's what you say.

It's the same SUBJECT AND IDEA. That is what the word 'relevant' means you know.

You lost me. Just because he mentions the barren doesn't mean he's quoting Is. 54. And verse 30 is from Hosea 10.

Oh but yes Jesus is... quoting from Isaiah 54:1.

You're not one of those who deny relevant Bible Scripture in another Book that may not use the 'exact' same wording as the other Book, are you? Those who do that just are making excuses to not heed the Scripture.

Let's see...

Luke 23:29
29 For, behold, the days are coming, in the which they shall say, 'Blessed are the barren, and the wombs that never bare, and the paps which never gave suck.'
KJV

Isa 54:1
54 Sing, O barren, thou that didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with child: for more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD.
KJV

Same idea, little bit different wording between the two verses.

(Continued... from my 2nd Post)

Lord Jesus when He was on His way to be crucified quoted that Isaiah 54 metaphor about the barren. He quoted it to the "daughters of Jerusalem" that were on the side weeping for Him as He went up to be crucified.

Luke 23:26-30
26 And as they led Him away, they laid hold upon one Simon, a Cyrenian, coming out of the country, and on him they laid the cross, that he might bear it after Jesus.

27 And there followed Him a great company of people, and of women, which also bewailed and lamented him.

28 But Jesus turning unto them said, "Daughters of Jerusalem, weep not for Me, but weep for yourselves, and for your children.

29 For, behold, the days are coming, in the which they shall say, 'Blessed are the barren, and the wombs that never bare, and the paps which never gave suck.'

30 Then shall they begin to say to the mountains, 'Fall on us'; and to the hills, 'Cover us.'"
KJV


Lord Jesus said to those Jewish women weeping for Him that the day would come when they and their children, will say that...

"Blessed are the barren, and the wombs that never bare, and the paps which never gave suck."

Why and when... will those daughters and children of the Jews be saying that "Blessed are the barren..." from Isaiah 54:1?

It's because of the meaning of the heart of that metaphor which God gave in Isaiah 54:1, and that Apostle Paul pulled from in 2 Cor.11 about Christ's Church when gathered to Christ.

Who is Lord Jesus pointing to that will be saying that "Blessed are the barren..."? Deceived Jews in Jerusalem at the end when Jesus finally appears to them, and then realize they have been deceived. And thus they will appear in shame when Jesus appears, and will wish for the mountains to "Fall on us", and for the hills to "Cover us". Those are metaphors for shame.

Thus the deceived Jews in Jerusalem when Jesus comes, those "Daughters of Jerusalem" and their "children", will be saying that "Blessed are the barren..." metaphor about the Faithful in Christ that wait for His coming "as a chaste virgin". Jesus Christ is our True Husband, "thy Maker" and "Husband" of the Isaiah 54:5 Scripture.

And another important part of that Isaiah 54:1 metaphor which is quoted in The New Testament is the idea of 'travailing with child'. That's simply about the idea of a woman who is pregnant and in labor pangs. That is part of the Isaiah 54:1 metaphor, "thou that didst not travail with child". That metaphor is used throughout The Old Testament, especially in the Book of Jeremiah because of the king of Babylon coming upon Jerusalem to destroy back in Israel's history.

In 1 Thessalonians 5, Apostle Paul uses the "travail with child" metaphor about the deceived at the end of this world that will be claiming, "Peace and safety", but then in final "sudden destruction" will come upon them...

1 Thess 5:2-4
2 For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night.

3 For when they shall say, "Peace and safety"; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child[/u]; and they shall not escape.

4 But ye, brethren, are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief.
KJV

That "day of the Lord" that will come "as a thief in the night" is the last day of this present world when Christ Jesus' 2nd coming to gather His saints will happen. On that same 'day', the deceived will be surprised and shocked when they see Jesus coming in the clouds, and thus their shame will be like a woman travailing with child. Paul is therefore using that travail with child idea as a symbol for the 'deceived' just prior to Christ's future return.

Lord Jesus in The Gospel of Matthew and of Luke also used a portion of that "thou that didst travail with child" idea from the Isaiah 54:1 "Blessed are the barre..." metaphor. He used about those "with child" for the coming time of "great tribulation" at the end of this world just prior to His return...

Matt 24:18-21
18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes.
19 And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days!
20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day:
21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
KJV

Now it is very simple to interpret the above "... woe unto them that are with child" idea being literally about a pregnant woman struggling in that future time of the "great tribulation", not being able to prepare to be caught up by Christ, or escape the city. But child birth is a Blessing per The LORD. So how is Lord Jesus using this "... woe unto them that are with child" at this point in time for the end? There's another example He gives in Luke 21 about the end...

Luke 21:22-23
22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

23 But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people.
KJV

Why will there be "... wrath upon this people" who are "with child"? Is that literally just about pregnant women in that time? And what timing exactly is that "days of vengeance, that all things are written may be fulfilled"? That "days of vengeance" is actually a reference to Jesus' future 2nd coming to gather His faithful Church on the last day of this world. (And yeah I know that some interpret this being about the 70 A.D. destruction of Jerusalem because of the next 24th verse. But recall that Jesus' mention of not one stone atop another prophecy is a dual-fulfillment type prophecy, once as a partial-fulfillment for 70 A.D. by the Romans, and the second time as a complete-fulfillment on the day of Christ's future coming.)

At the middle of the Luke 21:24 verse, it mentions Jerusalem being trodden down by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles is fulfilled. That's a last days event, not a 70 A.D. event. It is pointing to our near future of Revelation 11:1-3 about the future Jewish 3rd temple in Jerusalem to be built for the coming "great tribulation", with the outer court left for the Gentiles, and they shall tread the city for 42 months (i.e., the 3.5 years, or 1260 days of the Book of Daniel about the last days "great tribulation".)

in reality then, that "wrath" upon those "with child" at the end just prior to Christ's future return, is being used as a warning, because Apostle Paul says in 1 Thess.5:9 that those in Christ are not appointed to God's wrath.

(Continued...)

(Continued...)

Turn with me to Isaiah 54.

God gives a metaphor here, which is where Apostle Paul was pulling from with the "chaste virgin" and Christ as our Husband idea. It requires close attention to the Scripture to grasp it's meaning...


Isa 54:1
1  Sing, O barren, thou that didst not bear; break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with child: for more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife, saith the LORD.

God in the above is comparing a woman whose womb is barren and without child, to a woman that is a married wife. Then He says that the barren woman has MORE children than the married wife! Does that make sense to you? It ought to be the other way around, shouldn't it, with the married wife having more children than the barren woman?

No, that does not make sense, not in the literal flesh sense it doesn't. But once we understand God is simply using those ideas as a metaphor involving spiritual worship, then it begins to make sense.

Recall Paul's "chaste virgin" idea, and Christ as our true Husband, meaning we are to remain faithful waiting on Jesus to come, and not fall away to another (i.e., to the "another Jesus", the Antichrist/false Messiah). Which one in that Isaiah 54:1 verse represents the "chaste virgin" idea? The barren woman whose womb never bare, and that did not travail with child, of course.


Isaiah 54:2 Enlarge the place of thy tent, and let them stretch forth the curtains of thine habitations: spare not, lengthen thy cords, and strengthen thy stakes;
3 For thou shalt break forth on the right hand and on the left; and thy seed shall inherit the Gentiles, and make the desolate cities to be inhabited.

The above is about the symbolic tent of God's future Kingdom in the holy lands having to be enlarged so as to include the believing Gentiles. So that is about Christ's Church made up of BOTH believing Israelites and believing Gentiles, as one body. THOSE... are the more children the desolate barren woman will have per Isaiah 54:1.

Isaiah 54:5
For thy Maker is thine Husband; the LORD of hosts is His name; and thy Redeemer the Holy One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall He be called.
KJV

There above... is where Paul got that idea of Christ being our symbolic Husband per 2 Cor.11.

Those in Christ at the end of this world, are to remain without child, as a "chaste virgin" betrothed to Christ Jesus, our true Husband, and not fall away to the "another Jesus" that the false apostles preach. What are those who do not remain a "chaste virgin", waiting on Jesus Christ? Those are represented by the married woman of Isaiah 54:1!

Why is one not married in that parable, and the other woman is married? Who is that married woman in the parable married to? We know the barren woman remains "a chaste virgin" waiting for Christ to come. And the married woman WILL be 'with child'.

I know, it sounds a bit convoluted. But our Heavenly Father gave this to get His point across about staying in Him vs. falling away to the devil. And He is simply using the idea of a betrothed virgin waiting on the Bridegroom (Jesus) vs. the married wife who does not wait, but instead is found already married and travailing with child, which is about the married wife having played the harlot and violated the betrothal.

And at Isaiah 54:10-13 God reveals this virgin vs. married metaphor is applied to Jerusalem also. Revelation 21 reveals the new Jerusalem as Christ's Bride at His future coming. In Revelation 18, the Babylon Harlot claims she sits a queen, and is no widow. That means she is married to a king, but which one, because Satan also is a 'king' over the bottomless pit per Revelation 9:11.

The Hebrews 11:3 Scripture provides absolute proof of God's existence, if one takes the time to actually understand that verse...


Heb 11:3
3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.
KJV


Understand these phrases from the above verse:
1. "... that the worlds were framed by the word of God..."

God spoke and His creation came into existence. That is also pointing to Scripture like John 1 and of course includes Christ Whom He made His creation through per Hebrews 1.

2. "... so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear."

That is saying that the material things we see with our eyes, were not made of those material things. In other words, matter did NOT create matter.

I forget which law of thermodynamics that idea is, that material matter can neither be created nor destroyed, but only changes its state (liquid, solid, gas, vapor, etc.), but that is exactly what that last Hebrews 11:3 phrase is pointing to. Very profound, yet very simple, and modern science even confirms that.

What that means is, that something OUTSIDE OF THIS MATERIAL WORLD had to have created matter. It cannot be material matter at all that made the creation. That's what that means. And the whole universe is made up of material matter.

Apostle John said in John 4:24 that "God is a Spirit".

In 1 Corinthians 15:44-50, Apostle Paul revealed that 2 different dimensions of existence exist, this 'earthly' dimension, and then the 'heavenly' dimension. The earthly one is made up of material matter. But the Heavenly one is made up of Spirit. (And please don't confuse our sky around the earth as that Heavenly dimension of Spirit, just because God's Word calls the sky a heaven. KJV "heaven" in Genesis 1:1 is plural in the Hebrew by the way.)

In John 3:6, Lord Jesus said, "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit." By that Lord Jesus also was revealing the existence of 2 different dimensions of existence.

The above establishes that the material creation, made up of matter, did not create itself. As I said before, that means something OUTSIDE the dimension of matter had to have made the creation. Those who believe The Bible call that Something GOD, Who is a Spirit, like Apostle John said.

By that, just the existence of material matter is PROOF of God's existence and that other dimension being made up of Spirit.

I've noticed many brethren in Christ have a difficult time thinking outside of their flesh. I've never had that problem, as I can easily grasp God's Word when it is speaking of that other dimension of the Heavenly. And since that Heavenly dimension of SPIRIT had to have existed prior... to God's material creation of the universe, that suggests that other dimension of Spirit is actually the MORE real.

One more thing, since God is a Spirit, and He made His material creation from that other dimension of Spirit, it also means only HE can destroy His creation.