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Bible Talk => Theology => Topic started by: Betho on February 03, 2024, 09:57:20 PM

Title: Was the Father's will always subordinate to the Son's will?
Post by: Betho on February 03, 2024, 09:57:20 PM
Matthew 26:42-43 King James Version

He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. And he came and found them asleep again: for their eyes were heavy.

The scene underscores Jesus' submission to the Father's will and his redemptive sacrifice. This event is central to Christian theology, representing Jesus' surrender into the hands of soldiers as part of the divine plan for humanity's redemption.

Matthew 26:53 King James Version

Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels?

This passage seems to suggest that, in stating that He could summon angels through prayer to the Father, Jesus was highlighting His authority over circumstances, including the Father's already established will. This prayer would represent a channel to express, if necessary, the adjustment of the Son's will in line with the already established redemptive plan, disregarding the Father's will.

In summary, does the fact that Jesus changes the will of the Father make Him coequal to Him?
Title: Re: Was the Father's will always subordinate to the Son's will?
Post by: RabbiKnife on February 04, 2024, 02:30:13 PM
Jesus did not change the Fathers will

Jesus is co-equal with the Father and co-equal with the Spirit in essence and nature, regardless of whom of the three are submitting the the other at the time.
Title: Re: Was the Father's will always subordinate to the Son's will?
Post by: Sojourner on February 04, 2024, 03:25:18 PM
Jesus had neither the desire nor inclination to oppose God's will, but is simply demonstrating that the sacrifice of His flesh and blood was voluntary. As He Himself said, He had the power to lay down His life and the power to take it back up again. (John 10:17-18)
Title: Re: Was the Father's will always subordinate to the Son's will?
Post by: CrimsonTide21 on August 23, 2024, 11:08:52 AM
Matthew 26:42-43 King James Version

He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. And he came and found them asleep again: for their eyes were heavy.

The scene underscores Jesus' submission to the Father's will and his redemptive sacrifice. This event is central to Christian theology, representing Jesus' surrender into the hands of soldiers as part of the divine plan for humanity's redemption.

Matthew 26:53 King James Version

Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels?

This passage seems to suggest that, in stating that He could summon angels through prayer to the Father, Jesus was highlighting His authority over circumstances, including the Father's already established will. This prayer would represent a channel to express, if necessary, the adjustment of the Son's will in line with the already established redemptive plan, disregarding the Father's will.

In summary, does the fact that Jesus changes the will of the Father make Him coequal to Him?
50 Jesus replied, “Do what you came for, friend.”[d]

Then the men stepped forward, seized Jesus and arrested him. 51 With that, one of Jesus’ companions reached for his sword, drew it out and struck the servant of the high priest, cutting off his ear.

52 “Put your sword back in its place,” Jesus said to him, “for all who draw the sword will die by the sword. 53 Do you think I cannot call on my Father, and he will at once put at my disposal more than twelve legions of angels? 54 But how then would the Scriptures be fulfilled that say it must happen in this way?”

Jesus is talking to one of his disciples and making a rather obvious point regarding the absurdity of trying to thwart His purpose by using a sword.