Was the Father's will always subordinate to the Son's will?

[Betho]

Matthew 26:42-43 King James Version

He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. And he came and found them asleep again: for their eyes were heavy.

The scene underscores Jesus' submission to the Father's will and his redemptive sacrifice. This event is central to Christian theology, representing Jesus' surrender into the hands of soldiers as part of the divine plan for humanity's redemption.

Matthew 26:53 King James Version

Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels?

This passage seems to suggest that, in stating that He could summon angels through prayer to the Father, Jesus was highlighting His authority over circumstances, including the Father's already established will. This prayer would represent a channel to express, if necessary, the adjustment of the Son's will in line with the already established redemptive plan, disregarding the Father's will.

In summary, does the fact that Jesus changes the will of the Father make Him coequal to Him?

[RabbiKnife]

Jesus did not change the Fathers will

Jesus is co-equal with the Father and co-equal with the Spirit in essence and nature, regardless of whom of the three are submitting the the other at the time.

[Sojourner]

Jesus had neither the desire nor inclination to oppose God's will, but is simply demonstrating that the sacrifice of His flesh and blood was voluntary. As He Himself said, He had the power to lay down His life and the power to take it back up again. (John 10:17-18)